The land of course belongs, as you say, to "the Arab state" as it was defined in UNGAR 181. This is a good riposte to all the deniers of Palestine and the Palestinian Arabs, who suggest that the unwanted bits of the occupied territories (those with the highest concentration of Palestinian Arabs) should go to Jordan or Egypt, just because the latter two occupied parts of Palestine between 1948 and 1967. I had not heard your line of reasoning before, but it makes comon sense. You obviously have a background in the legal profession.
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from the article: Settler council: Netanyahu's West Bank pullout plan radiates panic