In order to take it "back" the record from Iran, Israel would have had to have been the record holder at some point in the past. I can find no evidence of this. The Jewish Agency's website quotes Chairman of the Israel Chess Federation, Aviv Bushinsky, who initiated the event of attempting to set the new world record, as saying, “This is a special opportunity to give chess more exposure among the public and to prove that chess is a national sport in Israel. It will also prove that Israel is a superpower, at least in chess.” Why would this need to be proven if Israel held the record before? Perhaps the headline ought to read "takes the record AWAY from Iran? "
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from the article: Israeli grandmaster takes chess world record back from Iran