"There are two population groups in one region, one of which possesses all the rights and protections, while the other is deprived of rights and is ruled by the first group. This is a flagrantly undemocratic situation. " By this definition, Jews have been victims of apartheid in all of Europe and every Muslim country. In what Muslim country today do Jews have equal rights? Are Copts victims of apartheid in Egypt? Are Bahai victims of apartheid in Iran? Are Shia victims of apartheid in Bahrein? How about the Kurds in Turkey? By Shocken's definition the Muslims in France are victims of apartheid. Then why does Shocken's publication, Haaretz, reserve it as a derogatory against Israel?
Egypt says verdict in Al-Jazeera case expected Saturday (AP)
from the article: The necessary elimination of Israeli democracy