If a Jew anywhere , owns property and is deceased. Does this property become part and parcel of "Jewish property" which can be claimed by any Jew , Jewish state or any Jewish organization? This is a strange concept of collective property that has serious consequences in a modern legal world.....An American in the Phillipines owned a home in WWII . He died. Some California traveller , goes to the Phillipines and claimes that home and evicts its residents based on the fact that an American owned that home at one time.Anyway you slice it , It does not make sense folks, now does it?.
Egypt says verdict in Al-Jazeera case expected Saturday (AP)