... then Jerusalem does not belong to Israel, because UNTIL an agreement is reached Israel can not change the status of this city, which is an "Israeli-occupied city". Your argument is fallacious because it amounts to saying that UNTIL Israel comes to an agreement with the Pals THEN Israel can treat Jerusalem *as* *if* it already belonged to her, even though it does not already belong to her. Both logic and law say that this is incorrect.
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Netanyahu says 'coordination, de-confliction mechanism' with Russia 'successful' (Haaretz)
from the article: Jerusalem master plan: Expansion of Jewish enclaves across the city