... then Jerusalem does not belong to Israel, because UNTIL an agreement is reached Israel can not change the status of this city, which is an "Israeli-occupied city". Your argument is fallacious because it amounts to saying that UNTIL Israel comes to an agreement with the Pals THEN Israel can treat Jerusalem *as* *if* it already belonged to her, even though it does not already belong to her. Both logic and law say that this is incorrect.
Israeli tourist killed after falling off cliff in Jordan (Haaretz)
from the article: Jerusalem master plan: Expansion of Jewish enclaves across the city