UN Security Council Resolution 242 notes the "inadmissibility of the acquisition of territory by war" regardless of whether the war in which the territory was acquired was offensive or defensive. Moreover, the Germans, the Portugeses...ect...all have big countries at their disposal even after the alleged expulsion. Palestine was there since centuries: "Filastin biladuna [Palestine our land]" (al-din al-ramli, XVI cent.). The fact that was not a state, i.e. a Western concept, is irrelevant (or colonialistic, if you assume that a person or a place does not exist simply because does not define himself in a Western way). The Holy Land never belonged to 1 single people in its entire history. Why should be the case today?
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