The "settlers" are not illegal. Kindly explain by what legal criteria you claim they are. And while you're about it, don't forget to consider the following facts: The 1922 Mandate for Palestine applies to Judaea and Samaria, as well as to the territories within the 1948 ceasefire lines (the “green Line”) and states as its aim the establishment of a Jewish National Home in that area. It does, indeed, protect the civil and religious rights of non-Jewish residents, but NOWHERE does it grant anyone other than the Jewish People NATIONAL rights within the area of “Palestine”. Article 6 of the Palestine Mandate signed by the League of Nations in 1922 AND NEVER ABROGATED, required the Administration of Palestine (ie. Britain) to facilitate and encourage “close settlement” by JEWS on the land, including State lands and waste lands not required for public purposes. As I said, this obligation was never abrogated. Indeed, Article 80 of the UN Charter explicitly prohibits the alteration “in any manner (of) the rights whatsoever of any states or any peoples or the terms of existing international instruments to which Members of the United Nations may respectively be parties.” Thus, the aforementioned Article 6 of the Mandate for Palestine is as valid today as it was in 1922. Furthermore, when the Jordanians occupied and annexed Judaea and Samaria in 1948, it is THEY who were in illegal occupation – an occupation which was legally recognized by no-one other than Pakistan, Iraq and the United Kingdom. Thus, when Israeli forces liberated those territories in a DEFENSIVE war in 1967, they were liberating them from an illegal occupier, NOT from a sovereign power. These lands were never, in fact, allocated to any “High Contracting State” to whom the obligations of the 4th Geneva Convention could be said to apply. The most that could be said about the territories rightly known as Judaea and Samaria is, that they were "no-man's land" between 1948 and 1967.
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