To those who say that Israel has the "right to build" in the Occupied Territories: did Israel claim this right before the 1967 War? Or is it still sticking by the story that its Arab neighbors attacked Israel which, as a matter of self defense, led Israel to occupy these territories? Occupying your enemy's territory for self-defense purposes is reasonable so long as it is limited to that. Or is it both, a fortuitous coincidence that the lands that Israel occupied, ostensibly for self-defense purposes, happen to have been "rightfully occupied" by Israel all along? There's nothing wrong with doing well by doing good, I suppose. But it does open yet again questions about the reasons for the 1967 War, the "accidental" bombing of the U.S.S. Liberty, and other things. What is the real story?
Saudis warns U.S. that 9/11 responsibility law would erode investor confidence in America (Reuters)
For all those suffering from voluntary amnesia here are just a few of the Irgun's highlights of Hamas-worthy violence.20:47 02.05.16 | 2 comments