How do you say an action is legal, but to incite the action is not? That seems the huge point about this law that nobody is asking. If a person decides not to buy settler products, when does that person's action become incitement? After all, if someone tells a friend or family member that he or she is boycotting settler products that could be viewed as incitement. If an individual boycotts settler products and a friend or family member notices the fact, even that could be viewed as incitement, as leading by example. If inciting a particular action is a crime, how can the action itself not be regarded as a crime?
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Assailant attempts to shoot prominent Turkish journalist on trial for spying charges (Reuters)
from the article: Israel's boycott law is constitutional