"We will not deploy supermarket inspectors to examine whether somebody bought Arabs' olive oil and not settlers' olive oil." Really? Where's the guarantee on that? - Comment - Israel News | Haaretz Daily Newspaper
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    • Michael UK
    • 18.07.11 | 12:01 (IDT)

    How do you say an action is legal, but to incite the action is not? That seems the huge point about this law that nobody is asking. If a person decides not to buy settler products, when does that person's action become incitement? After all, if someone tells a friend or family member that he or she is boycotting settler products that could be viewed as incitement. If an individual boycotts settler products and a friend or family member notices the fact, even that could be viewed as incitement, as leading by example. If inciting a particular action is a crime, how can the action itself not be regarded as a crime?

    from the article: Israel's boycott law is constitutional
    First published 02:05 18.07.11 | Last updated 02:05 18.07.11
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