'Forget about right-left, Orthodox-secular, capitalism-socialism. Fairness should belong to everyone,' protesters say in weekly demonstration.22:22 28.11.15 | 0 comments
How do you say an action is legal, but to incite the action is not? That seems the huge point about this law that nobody is asking. If a person decides not to buy settler products, when does that person's action become incitement? After all, if someone tells a friend or family member that he or she is boycotting settler products that could be viewed as incitement. If an individual boycotts settler products and a friend or family member notices the fact, even that could be viewed as incitement, as leading by example. If inciting a particular action is a crime, how can the action itself not be regarded as a crime?