Since the Haaretz' censor on duty seems to be in good mood today I shall repeat the questions that I, together with some others talkbakers, asked, but never neither got the answer or/nor the question(s) even made it to the status of being published: 1. Why the Palestinian Arabs have not established a state of their own in the period of 1947-1967, when there was no 'occupation' and no settlers? 2. What is the difference in legality between the occupation and dimemberment of Germany by the Allies in 1945 and the occupation of the WB and the Golan by Israel in 1967. 3. What with the slaughter and expulsion of Jews from Arab countries and the teft of their property after 1948, some hundreds or even thousands of kilometers distant from Palestine and without any link to the 'dynamics' of war in that area? Was it racism or what?
Suspect Bangkok bomber arrested, found with possible bomb-making materials (Reuters)