No Talkink, there was no Arab sovereignty over Palestine when the Jews came - Comment - Israel News | Haaretz Daily Newspaper
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    • C. Bendavid
    • 31.12.13 | 20:22 (IST)

    Thus, land acquisition by Jews was not merely ''real estate'' in a country under Arab sovereignty. As for the partition plan, it did not give 56% of Palestine to the Jews, but rather 12% of it (you seem to forget that Jordan was part-and-parcel of Palestine until 1922). Nonetheless, it is true that this Israelis created their state in a territory that was already occupied by the Palestinians. But anyway, as I said, the Jews were a landless people. Thus, it was right to partition Palestine, so that both the Jews and the Arabs can have a state of their own. Of course, you have the right to disagree with this idea. But wanting nations that already have a territory of their own to share a part of it with homeless nations has nothing to do with ''colonialism'' or ''imperialism''. Sharing ressources is called distributive justice, not theft. I would expect rightists to believe the opposite, not people on the left!

    from the article: Haaretz columnist Ari Shavit's new book enjoying praise and sales in U.S.
    First published 22:28 25.12.13 | Last updated 22:28 25.12.13
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