Thank you for having sense. The fact that most of Jerusalem was gobbled up by the churches centuries back makes the ownership by them somehow kosher to everyone it seems. What difference does it make whether land is taken by the government, whether civilian or church, now or sometime in the past? Does time make it more legal? Or is it more legal because it's not Jewish?
Kerry: Pollard's parole not related to Iran deal (Reuters)
from the article: Violating the norms of democracy