I am not often moved to comment on articles online, but I find this phrase particularly astonishing: "As in other countries, the distinction between harsh criticism of Israel and "judeophobia" is further blurred by the presence of Jews in the anti-Israel camp." The 'blurring' of two things implies that they have become confused, that they overlap. Can the author please explain how it is that the presence of Jews on one side of a debate makes it more likely that that faction is 'Judeophobic'? Or is he so committed to implying that all criticism of Israel is racially motivated that he has simply become incapable of using language that implies otherwise? Incredible.
Hello user Logout | profile
You have watched of 10 articles
Earthquake measuring 5.7 magnitude felt in New Zealand capital (Reuters)
from the article: Does Scotland manage to be anti-Israel without being anti-Semitic?