I agree with much of Strenger's argument. But he contradicts himself when he writes, "The very raison d’etre of Israel’s existence is for Jews to have a state of their own ..." Doesn't that have to change for Israel to be "Jewish in the modern sense"? What about non-Jews living in Israel? Is Israel not their state, too? And do Jews who live outside Israel get to "have" Israel more than do non-Jews living in Israel and Palestinians expelled from Israel?
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