It is indisputable that when Res 181 refers to "an Arab state" it is making no attempt to define Palestine as "the nation-state for the Arab people" i.e. you can only regard "an Arab state" as a DESCRIPTIVE term, but if you do that for "an Arab state" then you must also do that for "a Jewish state". But I'm curious how *you* can reconcile this problem i.e. if "a Jewish state" means "the nation-state for the Jewish people" then "an Arab state" must also mean "the nation-state for the Arab people", which absurd.
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At least 15 people said wounded in bus accident on Rte. 431 between Ramle and Modi'in (Haaretz)
from the article: Erekat: No unilateral declaration of Palestinian state