It doesn't refer to "the nation-state of the Jewish people" - Comment - Israel News | Haaretz Daily Newspaper
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    • Johnboy
    • 13.07.10 | 15:56 (IDT)

    It is indisputable that when Res 181 refers to "an Arab state" it is making no attempt to define Palestine as "the nation-state for the Arab people" i.e. you can only regard "an Arab state" as a DESCRIPTIVE term, but if you do that for "an Arab state" then you must also do that for "a Jewish state". But I'm curious how *you* can reconcile this problem i.e. if "a Jewish state" means "the nation-state for the Jewish people" then "an Arab state" must also mean "the nation-state for the Arab people", which absurd.

    from the article: Erekat: No unilateral declaration of Palestinian state
    First published 12:37 13.07.10 | Last updated 12:37 13.07.10
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