..it never happened? Really?? Absence of proof is not proof of absence. This argument from ignorance is a fallacy in informal logic. It asserts that a proposition is true because it has not yet been proven false, it is "generally accepted" (or vice versa). This represents a type of false dichotomy in that it excludes a third option, which is that there is insufficient investigation and therefore insufficient information to prove the proposition satisfactorily to be either true or false. Nor does it allow the admission that the choices may in fact not be two (true or false), but may be as many as four, (1) true, (2) false, (3) unknown between true or false, and (4) being unknowable (among the first three). In debates, appeals to ignorance are sometimes used to shift the burden of proof. No evidence whatsoever? None? Nothing? You must be looking in the wrong places.
U.S. to defend Syrian rebels with airpower, including from Assad (Reuters)
from the article: Were Jews ever really slaves in Egypt, or is Passover a myth?