According to the article, boats to GAZA invariably must traverse Israeli waters. How is it possible that a country claims for itself the waters of a territory it has "evacuated". It seems to me that the waters off GAZA do not constitute Israeli maritime territory but rather are Palestinian water, or at best "occupied waters" but not Israeli waters. One should be able to sail right up to the coast of GAZA unhindered, and without traversing areas under Israeli control. It is laughable that an area can be considered evacuated yet be blockaded by land sea and air. These are acts of war as surely as every little rocket that lands in the Negev.
AG examines probes deal by new police chief Hirsch's security firm (Haaretz)