"Well, The Jews were absent from the area since 70 C.E. - or at the very least since 136 CE. (Bar Kochba wars). So under the Absentee Property Law, they have forfeited all claims to even a cm of the land."
I understand this is what had happened, which is why the Zionists had to buy the land.
How do you think all those Arabs came to live in the land if not by arguing that the Jews had forfeited ownership rights?
Don't forget that all these alleged crimes supported by this law happened AFTER Israel had been attacked. Before the attack, the Jews got all the land legally by buying it. And after the attack (and in Arab countries also before), Arabs and Jews got land by taking it from absent Jews and Arabs.
I don't see how this becomes a crime when Jews do it.
"Well, The Jews were absent from the area since 70 C.E. - or at the very least since 136 CE. (Bar Kochba wars). So under the Absentee Property Law, they have forfeited all claims to even a cm of the land." I understand this is what had happened, which is why the Zionists had to buy the land. How do you think all those Arabs came to live in the land if not by arguing that the Jews had forfeited ownership rights? Don't forget that all these alleged crimes supported by this law happened AFTER Israel had been attacked. Before the attack, the Jews got all the land legally by buying it. And after the attack (and in Arab countries also before), Arabs and Jews got land by taking it from absent Jews and Arabs. I don't see how this becomes a crime when Jews do it.