Completely inaccurate, I'm afraid - Comment - Israel News | Haaretz Daily Newspaper
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    • r cummings
    • 27.07.10 | 11:54 (IDT)

    Palestine has existed since 1922, not 1933. (1) It was not dependent on any agreement with Israel - how could it be, as Israel did not come into existence until 1948? (2) The Palestinian state (or strictly, 'non state entity') was created by the League of Nations, nothing to do with Israel (3) Jewish settlements in Palestine are illegal under the Geneva Conventions, an occupying power is prohibited from settling an occupied territory. Kan is getting confused by the Balfour Declaration, which said Jews could settle anywhere in Palestine. That however was superseded by the United Nations granting Israel its own territory. (4) As Palestine was not given to Israel in 1948, it is not Israeli land. The fact that there are Israeli troops there and an Israeli civil administration means it is Occupied Territory under international law. Such belligerent occupation is, under the Geneva Conventions, intended to be a brief matter, arguably no more than a year, until a cease-fire or peace agreement is signed. Israel has been there 43 years, so the occupation is certainly illegal. What warped form of national history DO they teach in Israeli schools these days?

    from the article: Settlers block West Bank roads to protest construction freeze
    First published 05:04 27.07.10 | Last updated 05:04 27.07.10
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