You still didn't answer the question. However, I assume you feel that if Israel perceives the other party originated the violence it has the right to go into other countries and execute whomever it considers guilty. Please answer: if another country assumes Israel originated the violence does it have the right to go into Israel and execute people on the same basis? If not, why does Israel have that right and nobody else? For instance, does the US have the right to kill those responsible for the attack on the Liberty?
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Sweden arrests 14 over plan to attack asylum center (AP)
from the article: Egypt official: Israel assassination policy inflaming entire Mideast