Israel is a high contracting power. The Arab states are high contracting powers. The wars have been between Israel and the Arab states over territories the Arab states represented. Which is why the UNSC, the UN, the ICRC, all consider the Geneva Conventions to be applicable. If the GC's were not applicable, why has the UNSC said in it's resolutions 'territories occupied'? UNSC Res 242 'territories occupied' 8 January 2009 - UNSC Res 1860- 'territories occupied' Can you explain this?
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from the article: Comment / Settlement freeze is like racial segregation in U.S.